| Dernières réponses | |  Hi,
"If our will is itself determined by antecedent causes, then we are no more accountable for our actions than any other mechanical object whose movements are internally conditioned."
This thread is supposed to be about whether free will is a pre-requisite for moral resonsibility to exist. Kant seems to think so, but we 'Kant' take his word for it.
But it does make sense - if we are like clockwork tin soldiers moving around obeying nothing more than the laws of physics it is not obvious that if one tin soldier knocks another one over it is an evil individual that should be punished. The knocker-over is responsible for the other one falling over, but is it morally responsible?
Please help.
I didn't find the right solution from the Internet.
References:
http://www.debate.org/forums/philosophy/topic/114372/
healthcare product marketing
Thanks |
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